Biblical Questions
Biblical Answers

I've discussed the events that took place at Sodom and Gomorrah elsewhere. That study should be read before this one, as this study is somewhat based on it.

The translators of the Authorized King James Version, like the rest of us, had their personal biases. Their biases are not nearly as evident in their biblical works as those of the new paraphrasers are in theirs, but they are still to be found in this grandest of all English Bibles. A case in point is their translation of the Hebrew words Qadeshah and Qadesh. According Strong's this word means female and male temple prostitutes respectively."

As I have pointed in so many of these studies, temple prostitution was a grave concern of the biblical authors. Despite this, notice the following verses in the KJV:

Deuteronomy 23:17: "There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite of the sons of Israel..."

Actually, this verse reads: "There shall be no Qadeshah of the daughters of Israel, nor a Qadesh of the sons of Israel..."

Which is to say: "There shall be no female temple prostitutes of the daughters of Israel, nor male temple prostitutes of the sons of Israel..." this is the literal meaning of the words.

Likewise:

I Kings:14:24 And there were also sodomites [Qadesh] in the land: and they did according to all the abominations of the nations which the LORD cast out before the children of Israel."

What do "sodomites" have to do with the 'abominations of the nations'? Again, the word translated as Sodomites is Qadesh or male temple prostitutes.

The word "abomination" here is tow'ebah and specifically refers to idolatrous activities. At the heart of such activities were the temple prostitutes referenced here but mistranslated as Sodomites. When read without bias, this verse makes complete sense:

"And there were also male temple prostitutes in the land: and they [i.e. these male temple prostitutes] did according to all the abominations [i.e. idolatrous acts] of the nations which the LORD cast out before the children of Israel."

Again,

I Kings 15:12: "And he took away the sodomites or out of the land, and removed all the idols that his fathers had made."

Once again, note the connection between the "sodomites" or Qadesh and the worship of idols.

"And he took away the male temple prostitutes out of the land, and removed all the idols that his fathers had made."

All of these passages make much more sense when correctly translated and understood.

And again,

I Kings: 22:46: "And the remnant of the sodomites, which remained in the days of his father Asa, he took out of the land."

"And the remnant of the male prostitutes, which remained in the days of his father Asa, he took out of the land."

We again find the presence of idol worship. As we read at the Wikipedia: "Immediately after his [Asa's] accession to the throne, he deprived his idolatrous grandmother Maachah of the title of Queen Mother (2 Chr. 15:16-18)." Of Queen Maachah we read, "...She is also called "Michaiah". She married king Rehoboam and is mentioned as his most beloved wife. She became the mother of Abijah, the next king. She lived after her grandson Asa became king, and was removed from her titulation of "lady" because she was worshipping idols." As for Jehoshaphat, "He devoted his life to destroying idols and restoring the worship of God." As we read in I Kings, Jehoshaphat still had to deal with the remaining idol worshipping sex cults and this is what's being discussed here.

Also,

II Kings: 23:7: "And he brake down the houses of the sodomites, that were by the house of the LORD, where the women wove hangings for the grove"

Once again, these "sodomites" or male prostitutes [qadesh] practiced their arts adjacent to the Temple, the House of Lord. Why would homosexuals do this? The Qadesh would do this because they believed their religious practices were the correct way to worship and they wanted their services to be readily available. Also note where the Qadesh did their work, where "the women" wove hangings for the Grove. That Pagans worshiped in Sacred Graves is obvious and common knowledge. Of this, Strong's informs us:

"asherah (ash-ay-raw');
Word Origin: Hebrew, Proper Name Feminine
from (0833)
Ashera(h) = "groves (for idol worship)"


1. a Babylonian (Astarte)-Canaanite goddess (of fortune and happiness), the supposed consort of Baal, her images
a. the goddess, goddesses
b. her images
c. sacred trees or poles set up near an altar

Therefore: "And he brake down the houses of the male temple prostitutes, that were by the house of the LORD, where the women wove hangings for the [Pagan][G]rove".

No friends, the Bible does not condemn committed same gender marriages among Jews or Christians. Don't believe the hate, God loves YOU, just as you are!

What then is a Sodomite? As I explain in my study on Sodom the Sin of Sodom is failure to show hospitality to strangers. All other meanings stem from homophobia. Nowhere does the Hebrew, Greek nor Aramaic text identify Sodom with homosexuality!

According to Webster's Dictionary: Sodomy:

Main Entry: sod·omy
Etymology: Middle English, from Anglo-French sodomie, from Late Latin Sodoma Sodom; from the homosexual proclivities of the men of the city in Gen 19:1–11
Date: 13th century: anal or oral copulation with a member of the same or opposite sex; also: copulation with an animal.

In other words, the word Sodomy was coined by the Vatican to justify their condemnation of homosexuals. The word Sodomy did not exist until it was coined in Latin in the 13th century.

For more on this, refer to my study What was the Sin of Sodom?

Still have doubts or questions? Let me know! I'm here to help.


The Grace Inclusive Christian Prayer And/Or Bible and Homosexuality (and discussion) groups



Who cares, I'm glad YOU'RE here!

	"Whosoever" means Whosoever
	Grace Inclusive
	Nicene Christianity
	Noahide Nazarene Way
	Thus Say the Prophets
	Contact Pastor John